Top 75 Bio - Zoology MCQ

Top 75 Bio - Zoology MCQ


1. The normal BMI (Body mass index) range for adults is

a) 10 - 15 b) 12 - 24 c)15 - 20 d. 19 - 25

2. The normal blood glucose level during fasting is

a) 70 to 110 mg/dl b) 80 to 200 mg/dl c) 100 to 150 mg/dl d)200 to 250 mg/dl

3. During emulsification, the bile salts convert bigger fat particles into smaller globules called

a)granules b)oil c) chilomicrons d) millimicrons

4. During root canal treatment, the cavity of the tooth is filled with a sealing paste made of

a)chitin b)calcium carbonate c) iodized salt d) gutta-percha resin

5. The gall stones are formed of

a)calcium b)growing infected tissue c)cholesterol d)sodium

6. An oily substance called sebum is secreted by

a) sweat gland b)sebaceous c) glandthyroid d) gland tear gland

7. Albinism is an extreme degree of generalized

a) hyperpigmentation b )hypopigmentation c) failure of pigmentation

d) perioral pigmentation

8. Partial albinism causes

a)leucoderma b)melanoma c) melanoma d)dermatitis.

9. Urea biosynthesis takes place in

a)blood b)liver c)cerebro-spinal fluid d)kidney

10. Number of ATP molecules spent to convert ammonia to urea is

a)four b)two c)three d)one

11. During glomerular filtration the malpighian body acts like a

a) Structural unit b) biological filter c) Biological buffer d) acid-base balancer

12. The amount of blood supplied to the kidneys is about

a) 20-25% of cardiac output b) 25-30%of cardiac output

c) 30-35% of cardiac output d) 35-40% of cardiac out put

13. 13Net filtration force which is responsible for the filtration in glomerulus is

a) 25mm Hg b) 50mm Hg c) 75mmHg d) 80 mm Hg

14. The amount of urea reabsorbed in the urinary tubules is

a) 5gm b) 17gm c) 21gm d) 20gm

15. Who first developed vaccine for rabies in man?

a) Robert Koch b) Joseph Lister c) Louis Pasteur d) Stanley

16. Which one of the following fields paved the sway for modern microbiology ?

a) Development of vaccines b) technique of new viral strains

c) discovery of new viral strains d) Development of pure culture technique

17. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the structure of viruses?

a) Nucleic materials are covered by a protein coat, called capsid.

b) The capsid is made up of capsomeres c) Some animal viruses have an additional

envelope d) The additional envelope is made up of glycoprotein

18. Virions contain only a single copy of nucleic acid, hence they are called

a) Incomplete viruses b) haploid viruses c) ploidy viruses d) complete viruses

19. Tumour inducing viruses are called

a) Pathogenic viruses b) oncogenic viruses c) Para viruses d) variola viruses

20. Which one of the following is a protozoan disease ?

a) African sleeping sickness b) Measles c) Cholera d) Taeniasis

21. Sexual reproduction of plasmodium takes place in

a) Liver cells of man b) RBCs of man c) Plasma of man d) body of mosquito

22. The pathogenic form of Entamoeba histolytica is

a) Encysted spores b) vegetative trophozoite c) merozoite d) schizont

23. Which one of the following is a trematode worm ?

a) Schistosomes b) Wuchereria c) Taenia d) Ascaris

24. Which of the following can induce immunity?

a) Bacteria b) viruses c) parasites d) all the above

25. Skin is a/an

a) Anatomical barrier b) physiological barrier c) phagocytic barrier

d) inflammatory barrier

26. Which among the following is anti-bacterial?

a) interferon b) lysozyme c) hormone d) protein

27. Which of the following is anti-viral?

a) lysozyme b) interferon c) protein d) hormone

28. Identity the phagocytic cells from the following combinations

a) Macrophage and neutrophil b) Lymphocyte and eosinophil

c) Macrophage and eosinophil d) Eosinophil and neutrophil

29. Histamine is secreted by

a) Epithelial cell b) Mast cells c) Red blood cells d) white blood cells

30. Humoral immunity consists of

a) Normal cells b) pathological cells c) cytotoxic cells

d) immunoglobulin molecules

31. Which type of graft is used in plastic surgery?

a) xenograft b) allograft c) autograft d) isograft

32. SCID is due to

a) Adenosine deaminase deficiency b) Glucose oxidase deficiency

c) Phosphatase deficiency d) Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency

33. Which of the following causes AIDS?

a) Bacteria b) Fungus c) Retro virus d) TMV

34. Thymus growth occurs up to

a) 17 years b) 12 years c) 5 years d) 30 years

35. Which of the following secretes immunoglobulin?

a) T-lymphocyte b) B-lymphocyte c) Macrophage d) Mast cells

36. In which prokaryote has voluminous genetically works been made?

a) TMV virus b) Phage c) Escherichia coli d) coli form bacteria.

37.Who discovered the double helix DNA model ?

a) G.H. Khorana b) Mendel c) T.H.Morgan d) Watson and Crick

38. About how many hereditary diseases in human beings had been identified ?

a) more than 300 b) less than 300 c) about 400 d) about 100

39. To obtain information about genetic characters in man which of the following helps?

a) Biochemical test b) Hybridization c) Pedigree analysis d) Inbreeding

40. Sickle cell anaemia is due to

a) autosomal gene b) sex chromosomal gene

c) vitamin deficiency d) hormone imbalance

41. Albinism is due to

a) absence of melanin  b) absence of vitamins

c) presence of melanin  d) absence of hormone

42. Name the human disease due autosomal dominant gene

a) sickle cell anaemia b) thalasemia c) SCID d) huntington’s chorea

43. Idiogram means

a) Diagrammatic representation of genes b) Diagrammatic representation of chromosome

c) Graph showing heart defect d) electro cardiogram

44. In human chromosome karyotyping the chromosomes 4 and 5 belong to group

a) A b) B c) C d) D

45. What is the name for mobile genetic elements?

a) Plasmids b) pili c) barr body d) transposons

46. What is the rate of growth of human population ?

a) 10 billion per year b) 90 billion per year c) 1 billion per year d) 80 billion per year

47. The present sudden acceleration of population is called as

a) population explosion b) population bomb

c) population trap d) all the above

48. Global warming is caused due to

a) lack of rainfall b) presence of a hole in ozone layer

c) human activities against nature d) extinction of animals and plants

49. The most abundant green house gas is

a) NO2 b) CO2 c) O3 d) SO 2

50. Which of the following gas destroys ozone layer faster ?

a) chloroflurocarbons b) hydrochlorofluro carbons

c) both (a) and (b) d) sulphur dioxide.

51. Which is a better method to dispose large amounts of water carrying relatively
small amounts of chemical wastes?

a) land filling method b) Deep-well injection

c) Surface impoundments d) incineration

52. Which one of the following organisms plays vital role in pollination of trees in

tropical forest?

a) mimic moths b) orchid bees

c) Rhinocerous beetles d) Humming birds

53. Which is commonly considered as a biologists paradise?

a) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve b) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

c) Nanda Devi d) Great Nicobar

54. The amount of energy the earth receives from the sun, per year is

a) 1000 K calories b) 10 X 10 30K calories c) 5 X 10 20K calories

d) 15 X 10 25 K calories

55. Which is considered as a future source of power, that can meet our unlimited demand ?

a) Hydel power b) Hydrogen c) Thermal power d) Solar power

56. Of the total amount of water, how much is available as fresh water?

a) 10 % b) 3% c) 15% d) 50%

57. Which of the following countries depend on desalination process for getting fresh water?

a) Dubai b) Oman c) Bahrain d) all the above

58. The breeds of cattle now available in India are

a) 29 b) 30 c) 26 d) 20

59. Which one of the following is not a draught breed?

a) Kangayam b) Khillar c) Kankrej d) Hallikar

60. The other name for the cattle sindhi is

a) Kongu b) Nellore c) Red karachi d) Decan

61. Kangayam originated from

a) Punjab b) Coimbatore c) Karnataka d) Kathiawar

62. Which of the following is not an exotic breed?

a) Jersey b) Gir c) Brown swiss d) Ayreshire

63. Which one of the following is a contagious disease of the cattle?

a) Constipation b) milk fever c) cow pox d) diabetes

64. Feeding jaggery along with lime water is one of the first aid measures for

a) Diarrhoea b) constipation c) milk-fever d) anthrax

65. Mating of closely related animals is called

a) outbreeding b) artificial insemination c) cross breeding d) Inbreeding

66. The milk which the following cow is characterised by high carotene content?

a)Sindhi b) Haryana c) Gir d) Jersy

67. For anthrax one of the following symptom can be seen

a) swelling of udder b) blood discharge from natural openings

c) loss of appetite d) lack of chewing

68. The book ‘Philosophie Zoologique’ was published by

a) Charles Darwin b) August Weismann

c) Mc Dougall d) Jean Baptiste de Lamarck

69. The German scientist who segregated germplasm from somatoplasm for the
first time was

a) Lamarck b) Malthus c) Weismann d) Hugo de vries

70. Mc Dougall supported neo-lamarckism and proved the concept of

a) Direct action of environment on organism

b) Learning is an acquired character

c) Speed of learning increased from generation to generation

d) All the above

71. Darwin supported the following concepts for evolution

a) arrival of the fittest b) survival of the fittest

c) The differentiation of somatoplasm germplasm d) genetic recombinations

72. The book “Process of organic evolution” to support modern synthetic theory of
evolution was provided by

a) Dobzhansky b) Stebbins c) Hardy-weinberg d) Hugo de vries

73. The factor that enriches the genepool with new modified genes

a) mutation b) somatic variation c) decrease in chromosomes d) increase in cytoplasm

74. A normal ECG the waves are designated from left to right as ...

a)PQSTR b)PQRST c)QRSTP d)TQRSP

75. Which one of the following is a viral disease in cattle?

a) Anthrax b) Mastitis c) Tuberculosis d)Rinderpest

M C Qs in Human Physiology - Nutrition and Digestion

Multiple   Choice   Questions in Zoology
            Nutrition and Digestion

Nutrition

1, Common intermediary products in carbohydrate metabolic processes is -

a] Lipids          b] Pentoses      c] proteins       d] Trioses

2, Pentose sugars are -

a] Amylase, Lipase        b] Glucose, fructose        c] Lactose, Triose             d] Ribose, Deoxyribose

3, An example of Hexose sugars is -

a] Deoxyribose            b] Ribose         c] Fructose      d] Glycogen

4, A gram of Carbohydrate yields energy equivalent to -

a] 41 calories   b] 4.1 calories  c]         2 calories         d] 100 K.calories

5, Maltose   forms due to the composition of -

a] Glucose + Fructose b] Glucose + Glucose

c] Glucose + Galactose           d] Ribose + Glucose

6, Sucrose forms due to the composition of -

a] Glucose + Fructose b] Glucose + Galactose

c] Glucose + Glucose  d] Ribose   + fructose

7, Lactose   forms due to the composition of -

a] Glucose + water      b] Glucose + Glucose

c] Glucose + Fructose d] Glucose + Galactose

8, A Polysachharide is found in liver and Muscles:

a] Glucose       b] Glycogen    c] ATP d] Vitamin

9, In food grains, starch is available as ____, _____ molecules -

a] cellulose, ribose       b] Pectin, Amylo pectin

c] peptide, polypeptide           d] lipid, protein

10, The building blocks of Proteins are _____ .

a] Pentoses      b] Amino acids            c] Peptides      d] Enzymes

11, An example for Functional proteins is      ___.

a] Lipids          b] ATP            c] Enzymes      d] Glycogens

12, Daily requirement of protein of our body (recommended by ICMR and WHO)

a] 2 gm/Kg body weight         b] 2 gm/Kg body weight

c] 1 gm/Kg body weight         d] 4 gm/Kg body weight

13, An example for protein malnutrition -- .

a] Mid-get       b] Encephalitis            c] Marasmus    d] Scurvy

14, Kwashiorkar is the disease of malnutrition mainly due to reduction of -

a] Lipids          b] Cabohydrates          c] Proteins       d] Water

15,   _____ is distinguishing factor between kwashiorkar and Marsmus

a] albinism       b] Oedema      c] Weakness    d] None

16, A gram of Lipid yields energy equivalent to ____ .

a] 9.3 calories  b] 4.1 calories  c] 2 calories     d] 100 K.calories

17, Visual perception is important role of the vitamin ___.

a] E      b] A     c] C     d] D

18, Blood coagulation is aided by the vitamin ____.:

a] E      b] E     c]   K   d] A

19, Sunshine vitamin is____.

a] Calciferol    b] Niacin         c] Vitamin E    d] Vitamin B

20, Nourishment to nerve cells is provided by the Vitamin ____.

a] C     b] B2   c] A     d] B1.

21, Daily Requirement of Protein is ____   / Kg of body weight.

a]         1 gm.   b] 1kg  c] 10 gm          d] 5 gm

Digestion

1. Intake of fewer amounts of protein leads to the deficiency disease called ___.

a) Beri Beri      b) Rickets        c) Anaemia      d)Kwashiorkar

2. Each gram of lipid is capable of yielding ___.

a) 9.3 Calories b)8.2 Calories  c)7.1 Calories  d)6 Calories

3. Deficiency of Vitamin D Causes ___.

a) Nytalopia    b)Xerophtalmia           c)Osteomalegia           d)Pellagra

4. The Calorie requirement for IRM at heavy work during occupational activities is __

a) 110 calories b)750 calories  c)2200 calories            d)960 calories

5. The Normal BMI (Body Mass Index) range for adult is ___.

a) 10 -15          b)12-24            c)15-20            d)19-25

6. The Normal blood glucose level during fasting is ___.

a) 70-110 mg/dl           b)80-200 mg/dl           c)100-150 mg/dl          d)250-250mg/dl

7. During emulsification, the bile salts convert bigger fat particles into smaller globules called

a) Granules      b) Oil   c)   Chilomicrons         d) Milli microns

8. During root canal treatment, the cavity of the tooth is filled with a sealing paste made of ___.

a) Chitin          b) Calcium Carbonate

c) Iodised salt d)Gutta-percha resin

9. The type of hernia occurs in the part of the groin is called __.

a) Inguinal hernia        b) Umbilical hernia

c)Scrotic Hernia          d)Fermoral hernia

10. The gall stones are formed of ___.

a) Calcium       b) Growing infected tissues

c)Cholestrol     d)Sodium Crystals

11. A fracture can be caused by ___.

a) Shock          b) Loss of Blood supply         c) Impact of force       d) Mal nutrition

12. The granulation of tisssues around the site of fracture is called ___.

a) Nodule        b)Papilla          c)Rudiment     d)Callus

13. An inflammation of synovial membrane is called as ___ arthiritis   .

a) Infective      b) Osteo          c) Rhematic     d) Mechanical

14. Mineral is required for blood clotting ___.

a) Sodium        b)Calcium        c)Potassium     d)Magnesium

15. In the oesophagus one peristaltic wave takes about ___

a) 9 seconds    b)8 seconds     c)7 seconds     d)6 seconds

16. The Normal length of the small intestine is ____.

a) 6-8 metres   b)5-7 metres    c)7-9metres     d)8-10 metres

17. Which enzyme hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids like

phenylalanine, tyrosine or tryptophan ?

a) Carboxy peptidase  b)Chytrotrypsin           c)Trypsin         d)Pepsin

18. It deals with all bone deformities occurring in children as well as adults ___.

a) Physiotherapy         b) Orthopedies

c) Occupational Therapy         d)None

19. It is a progressive process affecting the articular cartilage of aging joints ______.

a) Infective arthritis    b) Rheumatic arthritis

c)Osteo arthritis          d)Metabolic arthritis

20. Cod and shark liver oil are very good sources of ___.

a) Vitamin B   b) Vitamin C   c) Vitamin D   d) Vitamin E

21. It is associated with calcium absorption and deposition.

a) Vitamin A   b) Vitamin B   c) Vitamin C   d)Vitamin D

22. Enzyme which converts the soluble caseinogens into insoluble calcium casin __.

a) Pepsin          b) Trypsin        c) Carboxypeptidase   d) Renin

23. The daily secretion of saliva ranges from ___.

a) 1500-2000ml           b) 500-1000 ml

c) 1000-1500ml           d) 2000-2500ml

24. Swallowing process is under the control of ____.

a) Cerebrum    b) Cerebellum  c) Medulla Oblongata      d) Pons

25. The caloric requirement for IRW at heavy work during occupational activities ___.

a) 610 calories b)900 Calories             c)820 calories d)1800 Calories

26. Daily, the water loss through urine is ___.

a)1200 ml        b)1400 ml        c)1000 ml d) 600 ml

27. Daily the water loss through sweat is ___.

a) 1000 ml       b)600 ml          c)400 ml d)100 ml

28. Lack of vitamin, fissures appear at edges of the mouth ___.
            a) Vitamin B1             b) Vitamin B2             c) Vitamin B6 d) Vitamin B12

29. In the absence of   Which vitamin the collagen and connective tissue proteins are not
            synthesized properly ?

a) Vitamin A   b) Vitamin C   c) Vitamin D   d) Vitamin K

30. Lack of vitamins leads to haemorrhagic manifestations ___.

a) Vitamin A   b) Vitamin C   c) Vitamin K   d) Vitamin D

31. Vitamin which serves as a co-enzyme and co-factor in oxidative metabolism ___

a) Vitamin A   b) Biotin          c) Niacin          d) Vitamin B12

32. Normal metabolism of amino acids and fat are due to _____.

a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2 c) Vitamin B12           d) Vitamin B6

33. Nourishment to nerve cells is provided by ____.

a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2 c) Vitamin B12           d) Vitamin B6

34. Its deficiency in the body leads to Scurvy ___.

a) Vitamin B6 b) Vitamin C   c) Vitamin E    d) Vitamin D

35. What is the Body Mass Index of   70 kg person with a height of 180 cm ___.

a) 21.6 b) 20.6 c) 22.6 d) 23.6

36. The adult human skeleton consists of _____.

a) 206 bones    b) 212 bones    c) 202 bones    d) 208 bones

37. The Reparative phase (for fracture) takes place about ___.

a) 6-8 weeks    b) 8-10 weeks  c) 8-12 weeks  d) 6-8 weeks

38. It occurs when a remarkable imbalance occurs on the muscle power ____.

a) Congenital Dislocations b) Traumatic Dislocations

c) Pathological Dislocations d) Paralytic Dislocations

39. The pH of the pancreatic juice is ____.

a) 7-8   b) 8-9   c) 6-7 d) 5-6

40. What is the approximate body surface of IRM?

a)1.68 sq mt    b)1.62 sq mt    c)1.86 sq mt    d)1.26 sq mt

M C Qs in Human Physiology - Excretion, Endocrines, Nervous system, Reproduction, Sense organs

Excretion

1,         ______ is an adaptation for a semi-terrestrial habitat.

a] Ureotelism   b] Parasitism    c] Symbiosis    d] Cretinism

2,   Glomerular ultra filtration is the process taken place at ______.

a] Henle’s loop        b] descending tubule      c] ureter           d] Malphigian Capsule.

3, The volume of the glomerular filtrate produced each minute is called ________.

a] Basal Metabolic Rate          b] Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

b] Dialysis       d]   Systole- diastole

4,   In Man glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about _________.

a] 125ml/min.  b] 200 ml/ min c] 250 ml/ min d] 1ltr / min

5,   In 24 hours the total volume of glomerular filtrate is ________.

a] 1 - 2 liters    b] 5 -10 liters   c] 10 -50 liters d] 170 to 180 liters.

6,   Substances such as glucose, sodium and calcium, are called as ___ .

a] High threshold substance.   b] Low threshold substance

c] Buffer substance     d] catalyst

7,   Substances like urea and uric acid etc which are called as ________.

a] High threshold substance.   b] Low threshold substance

c] Buffer substance     d] catalyst

8, Kidney stone consists mainly of_______ and /or ______.

a]   calcium   oxalate, calcium phosphate.       b] Cholesterol / Alcohol

c]   sodium chloride, Pottasium chloride        d] Sulphates, Nitrates

9, The kidney stones in the bladder and lower ureter can be crushed and removed by _____.

a] dialysis        b] cystoscopy or by ureterorenoscopy

c] Angioplasty d] radiotherapy

10.   Name the condition whenever the excessive thirst leading to increased consumption of
            water.

a] Polydipsia   b] polyphagia  c] polyurea      d] polycythemia

11. _________ is the main cause for kidney stones.

a] alcoholism   b] hernia          c] hypertesnsion          d] Chronic dehydration.

Nervous Coordination.

1,   Sodium - Pottasium exchange pump discharge _______ , _________ ions to outside and
            inside of the nerve cells.

a] K+ , Na+ ions         b] Ca+ ions      c] OH+ ions    d) K+ , Cl+ ions

2,   The resting potential of an excitable nerve cell is about ____

a) 70 mV         b] 80 mv          c] 5-10 mV      d] 10-20 mV

3,   During recovery period, the cell membrane is _____.

a] Polarised     b) Repolarised c] depolarized d] immunized

4,   The synaptic cleft measures about ____

a] 0.5-1.0 mm  b) 10-20 mm    c] 5-10 nm       d] 10-20 nm

5,   The transmitter substance at the synapse is ___

a] Adrenaline  b]Dendrite       c] Neuron        d) Acetylchlonie

6,   At the site of fracture the tissue formed named as ____

a) callus           b] granules       c] inflammation           d] Muscles

7,   Olfatory reflexes and responses to odour are related to ____

a) Mammillary bodies b] Pituitary      c] Thyroid       d] optical

8,         _____ responds to the sleep - wake cycle

a) Hypothalamus         b] Brain stem   c] cerebellum   d] eyes

9,   The average weight of Human adult male cerebrum is ____

a] 800-1000g   b] 1000 g         c] 2000 g         d) 1400 g

10,   The Cerebro spinal fluid secretes at the rate of   _____

a] 150 ml/day  b] 100-200 ml/day       c] 200 ml/day  d) 550 ml/day

11,   In human brain, Sleep and respiratory centers are present in _______.

a] Cerebellum  b] Medulla       c] Infundibulum          d) Pons

12, The inability to recall memories of past is called _____

a) Amnesia      b] Coma          c] Aneursym    d] Cholesterol

13, The device used to record the electrical activity of brain is ____

a] ECG            b) EEG            c] MRI         d] X ray

14, The resting potential can be directly measured by the use of ____

a] pH meter     b) Oscilloscope            c] stethoscope d] MRI scan

15,   Chronic Brain syndrome is otherwise called ____

a] Menigitis     b) Alzhemiers’s disease           c] Stroke          d] down syndrome

16,       ________ is having the respiratory centre that control breathing.

a) Medulla oblongata  b] cerebrum     c] Pons            d] Spinal cord

17. Left and Right cerebrl hemispheres exchange information through -

a) Carpous callosum    b) hypothalamus          c] Pons            d) Colliculi

Chemical Coordination

1,   The premature arrest of skeletal development causes __

a] Gigantism    b] Dwarfism    c] Tetany         d] Acromegaly

2,   The excessive growth hormone in adult causes __

a] Acromegaly b] critinism      c] Myxedema  d] Goitre

3,   The molecular weight of thyroid hormone is ___ Daltons.

a] 500  b] 280000        c] 28000          d] 36000

4,    Thyrotoxicosis results in ___.

a] Grave’s disease       b] Myxedema  c] Cretinism     d] diabetes

5,    Molecular weight of Human Insulin is about ___ daltons

a] 51    b] 5734            c] 2374            d] 28000

6,   Insulin contains ___ amonoacids.

a] 21    b]31     c] 41    d] 51

7,   Luteotropic hormone is known as ___.

a] Insulin         b] Glucagon    c] Iodine          d] Prolactin

8,    The Osmoregulation is controlled by the hormone:

a] ADH           b] FSH            c] Oxytocin     d] Thyroxine

9,   The mineralo-corticoid hormone is ___

a] Cortisone     b] Aldosterone            c] Adrenalin    d] Vasopressin

10, The amino acid present in the thyroxine is ---.

a] Tyrosine      b] Glycine       c] Valine          d] Proline

11, Low level of insulin accumulates the ___ bodies.

a] Melanin       b] Ketone        c] fat    d] ADH

12, The Major Gluco-corticoid hormone is

a] Cortisone     b] Aldosterone            c] Adrenalin    d] Relaxin

Reproduction.

1,   In Male, the secondary sexual characters are produced by ____
            a] Oestrogen        b] FSH c} Androgen        d] Leydig’s cells

2,   For the effective production of spermatozoa, the testes should be maintained at the

temperature of ____.        A} 32°C    b] 42°C            c] 34°C         d] 98.4°C

3,   The sperms are stored in ____.

a] Testis           b} Vas deferens          c] Epididymis  d] Seminal vesicles

4,   The inhibitin hormone that inhibits the action of testosterone is secreted by ___ .

a} Sertoli cells b] Leydig’s cells          c] Pituitary      d] Intestine

5,   The principal hormone of   corpus luteum is ____.

a] Oestrogen    b} progesterone           c] Oxytocin     d] relaxin

6,   Each developing ovum is enveloped by a mass of -

a] Endometrium          b] Sperms        c} Graffian follicles    d] blood

7,   After the ovulation, the graffian follicles converted as

a} Corpus luteum        b] Embryo       c] Endometrium          d] Prostate gland

8,   Ovum enter into the fallopian tubes through -

a] Vagina         b} Fallopian funnel     c] Uterus         d] Gut

9,   The mucus membrane of the uterus is termed as

a} Endometrium         b]   Zona pellucida      c] Corpus luteum         d] Cervix

10,   Human Ovum is described as _____ .

A} alecithal     b] Mesolecithal            c] Megalecithal            d] Telolecithal

11,   _____ Plays an important role at the time of pregnancy.

A} Corpus luteum       b] Corpus callosum     c] Pituitary      d] Adrenal

12, In how many days does the menstrual cycle occur in woman?

a] 14 days        b} 28 days       30] days          d] 36 days

13,   When corpus luteum ceases to function, it is replace by a scar tissue_____.

a] endometrium           b} corpus albicans       c] epididymis  d] liver

14,   Copper-T can remain in the uterus for period of ____

a} 3 years        b] 10 years       c] 14 years       d] 10 months

15,   The permanent birth control method for male is ___.

a] tubectomy   b] cervical cap c] Condom      d} Vasectomy

16,   In test tube babies, the embryo is put inside the uterine endometrium at the ______.

a] 2-cell stage  b] 4-cell stage  c] 6-cell stage  d} 8-cell stage

17,   In GIFT method, the fertilized ova are introduce into the ___

a} Fallopian tube         b] Vagina        c] Cervix of Uterus     d] Endometrium

18, If ovum is not fertilized in the fallopian tube, it dies in ___ hours.

a} 12-24          b] 1-2   c] 48-72           d] 1000

19,   Progesterone is a ____ hormone.

a} Steroid        b] non-steroid  c] Growth        d] digestive

20,   Contraceptive pills stop the mechanism of ____.

a] Growth        b] labor            c} Ovulation   d] Growth

Sense organs:

1]    Accomodation distance for clear vision of objects to an human eye ___.

a] 25 cms. to Infinity  b] 10 cms         c 10 -100 mtrs d] 10mm - 100 mtrs.

2]    Ideal refractive state of an eye is called ____.
            a] Myopia        b] Emmetropia            c] Ametropia d] Hypermetropia

3]    A deviation in Emmetropia is called as _____.
            a] Myopia        b] Emmetropia            c] Ametropia d] Hypermetropia

4]    Short sightedness is refered as ____.      Myopia

a] Myopia        b] Emmetropia            c] Ametropia d] Hypermetropia

5]         ___ results due to elongation of the eye ball and increase of lens curvature.

a] Myopia        b] Emmetropia            c] Ametropia   d] Hypermetropia

6]    Myopia can be corrected by placing ____ in front of the eye.

a] Concave lens           b] Convex lens            c] Aspherical lens        d] mirror

7]         ___ results when the curvature of the eye lens is not great enough.

a] Myopia        b] Emmetropia            c] Ametropia   d] Hypermetropia.

8]         Hypermetropia (Long sightedness) can be corrected by placing ____ in front of eye lens.

a] Concave lens           b] Convex lens            c] Aspherical lens        d] distorted lens

9]         Distorted lens or cornea leads to the defect known as _____.

a] Astigmatism            b] Emmetropia            c] Ametropia   d] Hypermetropia

10] Astigmatism can be corrected by placing ____ in front of the eye.

a] Lens with varying curvature from one part to another       b] Emmetropia

c] Lens with varying focal length       d] Lens with sensors

11]   Both myopia and hypermetropia features are observed in the eye defect is ____.

a] Astigmatism            b] Emmetropia            c] Ametropia   d] Hypermetropia

12]   Presbiopia begins at about   ____   years of age.

a] 10    b] 20    c] 40    d] 60

13]   ____ can give the remedy for defects in reading.

a] Concave lens           b] Convex lens            c] Aspherical lens        d] distorted lens

14]   Practice of assessing vision and correction of defects using lens is known as ___.

a] Optometry   b] physiotherapy         c] optics           d] optoelectronics

15]   Retinopathy usually results due to   ____ ,   ____.

a] Diabetes mellitus, persistent hypertension  b] Atherosclerosis

c] Astigmatism            d] Kidney failure

16]   Diabetic retinopathy can develop the ___ tissues in the vitreous humour.        fibrous

a] fibrous         b] bony            c] calcareous    d] muscular

17]   Retinal detachment may occur due to _____ .

a] Dermatitis   b] Hypertensive retinopathy   c] arthritis        d] fatigue

18]   Opacity in the lens of the eye is known as ____.

a] color blind   b] Cataract      c] total blindness d] fatigue

19]   Retinopathy can be treated with. _____.

a] Optometry   b] physiotherapy         c] Laser surgery d] acupuncture

20]   Night blindness is referred as ______ .

a] Astigmatism            b] Nyctalopia c] Ametropia d] Hypermetropia

21]   Nyctalopia caused due to the deficiency of ______.     Vitamin A.

22]   Red eye with yellow discharge is known as   ____.

a] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis           b] Stye

c] Glaucoma    d] Hypermetropia

23]   Red eye without discharge and with cold is popular in _____.

a] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis           b] Stye

c] Viral conjunctivitis  d] Glaucoma

24]   ____ causes red eye with itching and watery discharge.

a] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis           b] Allergic conjunctivitis

c] Viral conjunctivitis  d] stye

25]   ___ is an acute infection of the glands located at the eyelid margin.

a] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis           b] Allergic conjunctivitis

c] Viral conjunctivitis  d] stye.

26]       ___ is a serious disorder of     an eye which can cause blindness.

a] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis           b] Stye

c] Viral conjunctivitis  d] Glaucoma

27]    The audible range sound in        Human ear is ______.

a] 50 - 5000 Hertz.      b] 5 - 50 Hertz.            c] 1 - 5 Hertz.  d] 5-10 Hertz

28] Melanocytes possess the enzyme tyrosinase necessary for the synthesis of         _______ from

the amino acid called tyrosine.

a] Maltose.      b] Melanin.      c] Photopsin.   d] Cholesterol

M C Qs in Human Physiology - Bones and Joints, Muscles, Respiration, Circulation

Muscles

1.   What is the substance that destroys the muscle protein during rigor mortis ___.

a) Proteolytic Enzymes           b) Mitochondrial Enzymes

c) Lysosome   Enzymes          d) Esterases

2. The diameter of muscle fibre varies from ___.

a) 10 to 100 microns   b) 20 to 200 microns

c) 50 to 100 microns   d) 60 to 80 microns

3. ‘A’ band contains thick filament formed of ____.

a) Action         b) Myosin        c) Lipids d)Troponin

4. The length of the thick filaments in ‘A’ band is ____.
  a) 3.5 microns b) 1.5 microns             c) 2.5 microns d) 4 microns

5. ‘I’ band contains thin filaments formed of _____.
            a) Myosis         b) Actin           c) Lipids d)Troponin

6. Less dense region at the central region of ‘A’ band is ___.

            a) Z line           b) H Zone        c) M Zone d) N Zone

7. The diameter of the thin filaments in ‘I’ band is _____.

            a) 50oA           b) 60oA           c) 70 oA d) 40oA

8. Sliding-filament hypothesis was proposed by ___.
            a) Hippocrates             b) Aristotle

            c) Hanson & Huxley d) Landsteiner &Wiener

9. _________ induces muscle fibre for contractions.

a) Ca+   ions    b) Dystropin    c) Acetyl Choline        d) Troponin

10. The maximum strength of contraction is   _____.

a) 25 kg/sq.cm b) 3.5 kg/sq.cm            c) 4.5 kg/sq.cm            d) 1.5 kg/sq.cm

11. Muscle fatigue is due to _____.

a) fail to oxidation of glucose b) Glycogen depletion
c) gluconeogenesis      d) Utilization of glucose

12. The skeletal muscle tone is the result of nerve impulses coming from ___.

a) Medulla oblongata  b) Cerebrum c) Cerebellum     d) Spinal cord

13. Isometric exercise increases the thickness of the muscle fibres and their ability to store __.

a) Glucose       b) Lipids          c) Glycogen     d) Minerals

14. Myasthemia gravis disease can be cured by removed of the _____.

a) Pineal gland            b)Thyroid gland c) Thymus gland      d) Adipose tissue

15. Myasthemia gravis most often affects women between the ages of _____.

a) 20 and 30    b) 30 and 40    c) 15 and 25    d) 40 and 50

16, During the muscle contraction Ca+ ions are released from -

a) Sarcolemma b) sarcoplasmic reticulum c) Nerve     d) Myosin

Respiration

1, Chronic obstructive airways disease is also called as

a] COLD.        b] Pneumonia  c] Pleurisy       d] Asthma

2,         ____ is the controlling centre for the respiratory activities.

a] Cerebrum    b] Medulla oblongata. c] Alveoli        d] Larynx

3, Bacterial pneumonia is caused by the bacteria named ______.

a] Coxsackie virus       b] Mycobacterium leprae

c] Pneumococcal pneumonia   d] Mycobacterium tuberculae

4, Intermediate organism between the Bacteria and Virus is ____.

a] Algae           b] Fungi           c] Alveoli        d] Mycoplasma.

5, The membrane lining the lungs is called ____.

a] Pleura          b] Inter coastal muscles           c] Mycoplasma            d] Retina

6, The inflammation of the Pleura is _____.

a] Asthma        a] Pleurisy       c] COLD         d] Pneumonia

7, TB is caused by the bacteria known as ___.

a] Coxsackie virus       b] Mycobacterium leprae

c] Pneumococcal pneumonia   d] Mycobacterium tuberculae

8, The disease causing widening of Alveoli is ____.

a] Asthma        a] Pleurisy       c] Emphysema.            d] Pneumonia

Bones and Joints

1,         The adult human consists of ____ bones.

a] 100  b] 200  c] 300  d] 206

2,         ____ described the treatment of fractures and injury in 14th century.

a] Aristotle      b) Hoppocrates            c] Siddhars      d] Harvey

3,   The frature that occurs in the young bones of children is ____ fracture.

a] Greenstick   b] Closed         c] open            d] Compound

4,   Pathological fracture may be caused by ------

a] Hyper pituitarism    b] Hyper parathyroidism

c] Hypo thyroidism     d] Rickets

5,         Torsion produces ___.

a] stress fracture          b) Spiral fracture         c] Birth fracture          d] closed fracture

6,         At the site of fracture the tissue formed named as ____.

a] callus           b] granules       c] inflammation           d] Muscles

7,         Teratogenic disorder is reffered to ______ dislocation.

a] Congential   b] Traumatic    c] Paralytic      d] Pathological

8,         Tuberculosis of Hip may cause dislocation of ____ .

a] acetabulum  b] knee cap      c] ankle            d] Vertebral column

9,         Degenerative condition of joints, without any inflammatory process is called ____.

a] Metabolic arthritis   b] Atherosclerosis

c] Osteo arthritis         d] Rheumatic

10,   The inadequate mineralisation of bones in adult is due to ___

a] Rickets        b] Tuberculosis            c] Hernia         d] Osteomalacia

11,       ____ deals the all bone deformities in Human.

a] Arthritis       b] Osteology   c] Orthopedics            d] Physiotherapy

12, Metabolic arthritis is commonly called as _____.

a] hernia          b] Rickets        c] Tuberculosis            d) Gout

13, Our skeletal system stores 98% of ___ in our body.

a] Copper        b] Calcium       c] Cobalt         c] carbon

14,       ____ is the therapeutic exercise to make the limbs work.

a] Aerobics      b] physiotherapy         c] Body building         d] Running

15, Nutritional rickets caused due to deficiency of vitamin _____.

a]   A   b] B     c] C     d)   D.

16, Arthiritis   without inflammation is _____ arthiritis

a] Rhematic     b] infective      c] metabolic     d] Osteo

Circulation

1]   Mention   the   Generic name for the antibody in our blood   -

a, Albumin      b, Globulin      c. Immunoglobin         d, lymph

2]   Blood clot in the Blood stream is known as   -

a, Embolus      b. Thrombus    c, Leukemia     d, Fibroid

3]    Sphygmomanometer used to measure -

a, Heart beat    b. Blood pressure        c, blood count d, Space value

4]    Blood clotting in side the blood   vessels is   known as -

a, Antithrombin           b. Thrombosis

c, Erythroblastosis       d, Anaemia

5]      Systolic   Pressure of an Adult is -

a, 80mm/Hg    b. 120 mm/Hg

c, 100mm/Hg  d, 60mm/Hg

6]      Diastolic Pressure of an Adult is -
            a. 80mm/Hg    b, 120 mm/Hg

c, 100mm/Hg  d, 60mm/Hg

7]    Heparin is seceted   by -

a. Mast Cells   b, Oxyntic cells

c, Blood cells  d, Nerve Cells

8]    Heparin is used to -

a, Excretion     b. inhibit blood Clotting

c, Blood coagulation        d, vomit

9]         ________ converts the fibrinogen into fibrin.

a. Thrombin     b, Calcium       b, Prothrombin            d, Serum albumin

10]    On disintegration, platelets liberate

a. Thromboplastin       b, Thrombin     c, Fibrin           d, Vitamin K

11]   Among the Leucocytes _______ is higher in number

a, Basophils     b, Eosinophils  c, Monocytes   d. Neutrophils

12]   Of the following _____   in not a type of leucocyte

a, Monocyte    b, Basophils     c, Neutrophils  d. Erythrocyte

13]    Blood platelets are produced by the   disintegration of

a. Red Blood Cells      b, Leucocytes  c, Nerve cells   d. Megakaryotes

14]   Eosinophils, Basophils and Neutrophils are termed as

a, Agranulocytes         b, Thrombocytes c, Lymphocytes           d. Granulocytes

15]    Agranulocytes are

a, Basophils, neutrophils b, Erythrocytes, Leucocytes c, Granulocytes d. Monocytes,

16]    Life span of White Blood cells are

a. 2 to 3 weeks            b, 2 to 3 months c, 2 to 3 days   d, 23 hours

17]   Red Blood   Cells are disintegrated in -

a, Kidneys       b, Caecum and Colon

c. Spleen and Liver     d, Lungs

18]       Where does the heart beat originates

a, Bundle of his           b, Atrio-Ventricular Node c. Sinu-Atrial Node     d, Aorta

19]       Where do the bundle of His Originate ?

a, Inter atrial septum   b, Interventricular septum c. A-V Node   d, Pacemaker

20]    Pace Maker is mentioned as -

a, Purkinje system       b, Bundle of His c, A-V node    d. Sinu-Atrial node

21]    During diastole left atrium is filled with

a. Pure blood   b, impure blood           c, Lymph         d, None

22]    The relaxation of heart is said to be

a, systole         b. diastole        c, Heart block  , blood clot

MCQ - Nutrition

1, Common intermediary products in carbohydrate metabolic processes is -

a] Lipids     b] Pentoses     c] proteins    d] Trioses

2, Pentose sugars are -
a] Amylase, Lipase    b] Glucose, fructose    c] Lactose, Triose     d] Ribose, Deoxyribose

3, An example of Hexose sugars is -
a] Deoxyribose    b] Ribose    c] Fructose    d] Glycogen

4, A gram of Carbohydrate yields energy equivalent to -
a] 41 calories      b] 4.1 calories      c] 2 calories      d] 100 K.calories

5, Maltose forms due to the composition of -
a] Glucose + Fructose      b] Glucose + Glucose
c] Glucose + Galactose      d] Ribose + Glucose

6, Sucrose forms due to the composition of -
a] Glucose + Fructose      b] Glucose + Galactose
c] Glucose + Glucose      d] Ribose + fructose

7, Lactose forms due to the composition of -
a] Glucose + water      b] Glucose + Glucose
c] Glucose + Fructose      d] Glucose + Galactose

8, A Polysachharide is found in liver and Muscles:
a] Glucose      b] Glycogen      c] ATP      d] Vitamin

9, In food grains, starch is available as ____, _____ molecules -
a] cellulose, ribose      b] Pectin, Amylo pectin
c] peptide, polypeptide      d] lipid, protein

10, The building blocks of Proteins are _____ .
a] Pentoses      b] Amino acids      c] Peptides      d] Enzymes

11, An example for Functional proteins is ___.
a] Lipids      b] ATP      c] Enzymes      d] Glycogens

12, Daily requirement of protein of our body (recommended by ICMR and WHO)
a] 2 gm/Kg body weight      b] 2 gm/Kg body weight
c] 1 gm/Kg body weight      d] 4 gm/Kg body weight

13, An example for protein malnutrition — .
a] Mid-get      b] Encephalitis      c] Marasmus      d] Scurvy

14, Kwashiorkar is the disease of malnutrition mainly due to reduction of -
a] Lipids      b] Cabohydrates      c] Proteins      d] Water

15, _____ is distinguishing factor between kwashiorkar and Marsmus
a] albinism      b] Oedema      c] Weakness      d] None

16, A gram of Lipid yields energy equivalent to ____ .
a] 9.3 calories      b] 4.1 calories      c] 2 calories      d] 100 K.calories

17, Visual perception is important role of the vitamin ___.
a] E      b] A      c]      C      d] D

18, Blood coagulation is aided by the vitamin ____.:
a] E b] E c] K      d] A

19, Sunshine vitamin is____.
a] Calciferol      b] Niacin      c] Vitamin E      d] Vitamin B

20, Nourishment to nerve cells is provided by the Vitamin ____.
a] C      b] B2      c] A      d] B1.

21, Daily Requirement of Protein is ____ / Kg of body weight.
a] 1 gm. b] 1kg c] 10 gm d] 5 gm

Digestion

1. Intake of fewer amounts of protein leads to the deficiency disease called ___.

a) Beri Beri      b) Rickets      c) Anaemia      d)Kwashiorkar

2. Each gram of lipid is capable of yielding ___.
a) 9.3 Calories      b)8.2 Calories      c)7.1 Calories        d)6 Calories

3. Deficiency of Vitamin D Causes ___.
a) Nytalopia b)Xerophtalmia c)Osteomalegia d)Pellagra

4. The Calorie requirement for IRM at heavy work during occupational activities is __
a) 110 calories b)750 calories c)2200 calories d)960 calories

5. The Normal BMI (Body Mass Index) range for adult is ___.
a) 10 -15     b)12-24    c)15-20     d)19-25

6. The Normal blood glucose level during fasting is ___.
a) 70-110 mg/dl      b)80-200 mg/dl      c)100-150 mg/dl      d)250-250mg/dl

7. During emulsification, the bile salts convert bigger fat particles into smaller globules called
a) Granules     b) Oil      c) Chilomicrons     d) Milli microns

8. During root canal treatment, the cavity of the tooth is filled with a sealing paste made of ___.
a) Chitin     b) Calcium Carbonate
c) Iodised salt     d)Gutta-percha resin

9. The type of hernia occurs in the part of the groin is called __.
a) Inguinal hernia       b) Umbilical hernia
c)Scrotic Hernia      d)Fermoral hernia

10. The gall stones are formed of ___.
a) Calcium      b) Growing infected tissues
c)Cholestrol      d)Sodium Crystals

11. A fracture can be caused by ___.
a) Shock      b) Loss of Blood supply       c) Impact of force   d) Malnutrition

12. The granulation of tisssues around the site of fracture is called ___.
a) Nodule       b)Papilla       c)Rudiment       d)Callus

13. An inflammation of synovial membrane is called as ___ arthiritis .
a) Infective       b) Osteo       c) Rhematic       d) Mechanical

14. Mineral is required for blood clotting ___.
a) Sodium b)Calcium c)Potassium d)Magnesium

15. In the oesophagus one peristaltic wave takes about ___
a) 9 seconds b)8 seconds c)7 seconds d)6 seconds

16. The Normal length of the small intestine is ____.
a) 6-8 metres b)5-7 metres c)7-9metres d)8-10 metres

17. Which enzyme hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids like phenylalanine, tyrosine or tryptophan ?
a) Carboxy peptidase        b)Chytrotrypsin      c)Trypsin      d)Pepsin

18. It deals with all bone deformities occurring in children as well as adults ___.
a) Physiotherapy      b) Orthopedies
c) Occupational Therapy d)None

19. It is a progressive process affecting the articular cartilage of aging joints ______.
a) Infective arthritis      b) Rheumatic arthritis
c)Osteo arthritis           d)Metabolic arthritis

20. Cod and shark liver oil are very good sources of ___.
a) Vitamin B        b) Vitamin C        c) Vitamin D        d) Vitamin E

21. It is associated with calcium absorption and deposition.
a) Vitamin A       b) Vitamin B       c) Vitamin C     d)Vitamin D

22. Enzyme which converts the soluble caseinogens into insoluble calcium casin __.
a) Pepsin b) Trypsin c) Carboxypeptidase d) Renin

23. The daily secretion of saliva ranges from ___.
a) 1500-2000ml          b) 500-1000 ml
c) 1000-1500ml          d) 2000-2500ml

24. Swallowing process is under the control of ____.
a) Cerebrum        b) Cerebellum        c) Medulla Oblongata      d) Pons

25. The caloric requirement for IRW at heavy work during occupational activities ___.
a) 610 calories        b)900 Calories         c)820 calories      d)1800 Calories

26. Daily, the water loss through urine is ___.
a)1200 ml      b)1400 ml      c)1000 ml d) 600 ml

27. Daily the water loss through sweat is ___.
a) 1000 ml      b)600 ml      c)400 ml     d)100 ml

28. Lack of vitamin, fissures appear at edges of the mouth ___.
a) Vitamin B1      b) Vitamin B2       c) Vitamin B6      d) Vitamin B12

29. In the absence of Which vitamin the collagen and connective tissue proteins are not synthesized properly ?
a) Vitamin A        b) Vitamin C            c) Vitamin D         d) Vitamin K

30. Lack of vitamins leads to haemorrhagic manifestations ___.
a) Vitamin A        b) Vitamin C     c) Vitamin K       d) Vitamin D

31. Vitamin which serves as a co-enzyme and co-factor in oxidative metabolism ___
a) Vitamin A       b) Biotin      c) Niacin     d) Vitamin B12

32. Normal metabolism of amino acids and fat are due to _____.
a) Vitamin B1      b) Vitamin B2      c) Vitamin B12      d) Vitamin B6

33. Nourishment to nerve cells is provided by ____.
a) Vitamin B1      b) Vitamin B2      c) Vitamin B12      d) Vitamin B6

34. Its deficiency in the body leads to Scurvy ___.
a) Vitamin B6      b) Vitamin C      c) Vitamin E      d) Vitamin D

35. What is the Body Mass Index of 70 kg person with a height of 180 cm ___.
a) 21.6 b) 20.6 c) 22.6      d) 23.6

36. The adult human skeleton consists of _____.
a) 206 bones      b) 212 bones      c) 202 bones      d) 208 bones

37. The Reparative phase (for fracture) takes place about ___.
a) 6-8 weeks      b) 8-10 weeks      c) 8-12 weeks      d) 6-8 weeks

38. It occurs when a remarkable imbalance occurs on the muscle power ____.
a) Congenital Dislocations      b) Traumatic Dislocations
c) Pathological Dislocations      d) Paralytic Dislocations

39. The pH of the pancreatic juice is ____.
a) 7-8      b) 8-9      c) 6-7      d) 5-6

40. What is the approximate body surface of IRM?
a)1.68 sq mt      b)1.62 sq mt      c)1.86 sq mt      d)1.26 sq mt